Objection to the Bible

Ojection:

In Matthew 1:12 we find that Zerubbabel is the son of Shealtiel. This is wrong! He is the son of Pedaiah, the nephew of Shealtiel, as documented in 1 Chronicles 3:17-19.

Response:

In Erza 3:2, 5:2, Nehemaiah 12:1 and Haggai 1:1, we find that Zerubbabel was the son of Shealtiel. Josephus the historian also documents that Zerubbabel was the son of Shealtie! If 1Chronicles 3:19 states that Zerubvabel was the son of Pedaiah, this is owing to the fact that the Jews relate a grandson to his grandfather, calling him his son. Genesis 29:5 calls Laban the son of Nabor, when in fact he was the son of Bethuel, son of Nahor (Genesis 24:47). However, if we are to understand that Shealtiel and Pedaiah were brothers, then it follows that Zerubbabel was the natural son of one of them and the legal son of the other, by the constraints of Levitical law. In any case, if Zerubbabel was the son of Shealtiel, as documented by Matthew, it is correct from every angle. This agrees with the rest of the sacred books as well as history.

GIF LINK: https://giphy.com/gifs/answers-hugcAZGVApqhxRLglC

According to Muslims, are the Bible have been changed? Part Two

A general idea has spread among the Muslims that the Bible has been tampered with and changed. However, the proofs that are presented to you on theses pages will definitely furnish you with convincing evidence, confirming  testimonies, substantiating verifications and measures that neither can be refuted nor compromised, to make sure to you that it is impossible for the Bible to have been tampered with or changed. The first question that should come to the mind of the inquiring Muslim is: "If there was any change in the Bible, then, was that change made before or after the days of Arabian messenger, Mohammad?"

If you were told that the Bible could have been changed after the days of Momammed, then ask  yourself the following questions. "If Christianity spread all over the world, before the days of Mohammed and it was divided into many denominations; then for the benefit of which denomination was the change made?" Was the alteration made in favor of Catholics, the Orthodox or any of the independent Christian denominations? Would the other denominations acquiesce to have any changes made in favor of one denomination but not in favor of the others?

 

https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=uy9iJ1kgwW8